aPHR practice test, weighted like the outline

Which part of a job description lists the minimum education, experience, and certifications a person must have to do the job?

1. Job summary
   The job summary is a short overview of the job's purpose and main duties, not the qualifications required.
2. Essential functions
   Essential functions are the fundamental duties of the job; they describe the work, not the worker's qualifications.
3. Job specification
   The job specification describes the person: the education, experience, skills, and credentials needed to perform the job.
4. Working conditions
   Working conditions describe the physical environment, schedule, and hazards of the job, not the required qualifications.

Harbor Point Hotels signs a contract under which an outside vendor runs the entire IT help desk using the vendor's own employees. What staffing approach is this?

1. Temp-to-hire
   Temp-to-hire places an agency worker with an option to convert to a regular employee.
2. Job sharing
   Job sharing splits one position between two employees.
3. Co-employment through a PEO
   A PEO co-employs the client's own staff for payroll and benefits; here the vendor's staff do the work.
4. Outsourcing
   Outsourcing hands an entire function to an outside provider that performs it with its own staff.

Oakline Dental brings in a dental assistant through a staffing agency, with the option to hire her as a regular employee after 90 days if the fit is good. What staffing approach is this?

1. Job sharing
   Job sharing splits one position between two employees.
2. Temp-to-hire
   In a temp-to-hire arrangement the worker starts as an agency temp, and the client may convert them to its own employee.
3. Outplacement
   Outplacement helps departing employees find new jobs.
4. Executive search
   Executive search finds candidates for senior roles; it does not place a temp first.

Silverline Logistics pays current employees $1,000 when a person they recommend is hired and stays six months. What sourcing tool is this?

1. Employee referral program
   An employee referral program rewards current employees for recommending people who get hired.
2. New-hire sign-on bonus program
   A sign-on bonus is paid to the new hire, not to the employee who recommended them.
3. Retention bonus
   A retention bonus is paid to keep a current employee from leaving.
4. Spot award
   A spot award is on-the-spot recognition for good work, not a sourcing tool.

A recruiter mining a resume database wants profiles that mention 'forklift' but excludes any that mention 'seasonal'. Which Boolean operator removes the 'seasonal' results?

1. OR
   OR returns records with either term, which would widen the search rather than exclude 'seasonal'.
2. NOT
   NOT excludes any record that contains the term that follows it.
3. NEAR
   NEAR looks for terms close to each other in the text; it does not exclude a term.
4. AND
   AND requires both terms to appear, so it would keep only the 'seasonal' resumes instead of dropping them.

Interviewers at Wexford Bank score answers to behavioral questions with the STAR format. In STAR, what does the 'A' stand for?

1. Assessment
   Assessment is not part of STAR; the four parts are Situation, Task, Action, and Result.
2. Attitude
   Attitude is not a STAR element; STAR looks at what the candidate did and what happened.
3. Ability
   Ability is not a STAR element; the 'A' refers to the steps the candidate took.
4. Action
   STAR stands for Situation, Task, Action, Result; 'Action' is what the candidate personally did.

After interviewing an outstanding candidate, a hiring manager at Ridgeway Builders rates the next, fully qualified candidate as weak. The manager is comparing the two people rather than using the job requirements. Which bias is this?

1. Similar-to-me bias
   Similar-to-me bias favors candidates who resemble the interviewer; the comparison here is with another candidate.
2. Halo effect
   The halo effect lets one positive trait raise every rating; this manager lowered the rating.
3. Contrast effect
   Contrast effect judges a candidate relative to the person seen just before instead of against the job standard.
4. First-impression bias
   First-impression bias locks in a judgment from a candidate's first moments; here the judgment comes from the previous interview.

Fairhaven Foods hired 40 warehouse associates last year, and 5 of them quit within their first 90 days. What was the 90-day new-hire turnover rate?

1. 12.5%
   New-hire turnover = new hires who left ÷ total new hires = 5 ÷ 40 = 12.5%.
2. 8.0%
   8.0% divides 40 by 5 and misplaces the decimal; the rate is 5 ÷ 40.
3. 5.0%
   5.0% reads the number of people who left as a percentage without dividing.
4. 87.5%
   87.5% is the share of new hires who stayed (35 ÷ 40), which is the retention rate.

Which sentence in an offer letter is most likely to undercut an employer's at-will employment relationship?

1. You will report to the warehouse manager, Dana Reyes.
   Naming the supervisor is a routine reporting detail that creates no job guarantee.
2. Your first day of work will be Monday, March 2.
   A start date is a routine detail; it promises nothing about how long employment will last.
3. Your starting pay will be $24.50 per hour.
   Stating an hourly rate sets pay; it is not a promise of continued employment.
4. This is a permanent position with a job for life.
   Promising permanent or lifetime employment can be read as an implied contract, which weakens the at-will relationship.

A new product designer at Vantage Toys signs an agreement promising not to reveal the company's unreleased designs and trade secrets to anyone outside the company. What is this agreement?

1. Arbitration agreement
   An arbitration agreement sends legal disputes to an arbitrator instead of court; it does not protect secrets.
2. Non-solicitation agreement
   A non-solicitation agreement limits recruiting the employer's clients or staff after leaving.
3. Nondisclosure agreement
   A nondisclosure (confidentiality) agreement restricts sharing the employer's confidential information.
4. Noncompete agreement
   A noncompete limits working for a competitor after leaving; it is not about revealing information.

An HR coordinator at Brookfield Clinics wants to know whether job boards, referrals, or career fairs produced most of last year's hires. Which recruiting metric answers this?

1. Turnover rate
   Turnover rate measures how many employees leave, not how they were recruited.
2. Source of hire
   Source-of-hire data tracks the channel each hire came from, so HR can see which channels work.
3. Average cost per hire
   Average cost per hire shows recruiting spend per hire; on its own it does not show the channel each hire came from.
4. Time-to-fill
   Time-to-fill measures how long positions stay open, not where hires came from.

Priya is transferring from accounting to marketing within the same company. What should her orientation to the new role mainly cover?

1. A new background check and drug screen
   Nothing in the scenario calls for repeating pre-employment screening for an internal move.
2. A new Form I-9 and identity documents
   A transfer within the same employer is not a new hire, so no new Form I-9 is required.
3. Company history, mission, and benefits enrollment
   Priya already received company-wide onboarding and benefits enrollment as an employee.
4. Her new team and department processes
   An internal hire already knows the company, so orientation focuses on the new team and how the department works.

Each new hire at Juniper Bakeries is paired with an experienced coworker in the same role, who answers day-to-day questions and makes introductions during the first few weeks. What is this called?

1. Buddy program
   A buddy program pairs a new hire with a peer for informal, short-term help as they settle in.
2. Executive coaching
   Executive coaching is targeted development for leaders, often from an outside coach.
3. Mentoring program
   Mentoring is a longer-term relationship focused on career development, usually with a more senior person.
4. Job rotation
   Job rotation moves an employee through different jobs; it does not pair them with a peer.

An instructional designer writes the learning objectives, outlines the course structure, and chooses the delivery method. Which ADDIE phase is this?

1. Design
   The Design phase turns the analysis into objectives, a course outline, and a delivery plan.
2. Analysis
   Analysis identifies the need and audience; objectives are written from it in the next phase.
3. Evaluation
   Evaluation measures whether the training worked.
4. Development
   Development builds the actual materials from the design.

Which learning objective for an HRIS course is written in measurable terms?

1. Understand how the HRIS stores employee records
   'Understand' cannot be observed directly, so this objective cannot be measured as written.
2. Enter a new hire's record in the HRIS with no errors
   This objective names an observable action and a standard (no errors), so it can be measured.
3. Appreciate the value of accurate employee data
   'Appreciate' describes an attitude with no observable behavior or standard.
4. Become comfortable using the new HRIS screens
   'Become comfortable' has no observable behavior or measurable standard.

Employees in four states join a live webinar at the same time, hear the trainer in real time, and ask questions in the chat. What type of training is this?

1. Vestibule training
   Vestibule training takes place in a simulated work area, not in a webinar.
2. Self-paced module
   A self-paced module lets each learner move through content on their own schedule.
3. Synchronous virtual training
   Synchronous training happens live, with learners and trainer online at the same time.
4. Asynchronous e-learning
   Asynchronous e-learning is completed at different times by each learner, with no live session.

Three months after a safety course, supervisors at Delta Plastics observe whether trained workers now follow the new lockout steps on the floor. Which Kirkpatrick level is being measured?

1. Level 3: Behavior
   Level 3 measures whether trainees use what they learned on the job.
2. Level 1: Reaction
   Level 1 measures how participants felt about the course, not what they do later on the job.
3. Level 2: Learning
   Level 2 measures knowledge gained, usually by testing right after training.
4. Level 4: Results
   Level 4 measures organizational outcomes, such as fewer injuries, not individual behavior.

What term describes the degree to which employees apply skills learned in training to their actual jobs?

1. Learning curve
   A learning curve shows how performance improves with practice over time, not whether training is applied on the job.
2. Training needs analysis
   Needs analysis comes before training to decide what is needed; it does not describe on-the-job use.
3. Programmed instruction
   Programmed instruction is a self-paced method of delivering content in small steps.
4. Transfer of training
   Transfer of training is the use of new skills back on the job; supervisor support and practice opportunities strengthen it.

Sales reps at Northgate Medical receive three-minute videos on their phones, each covering a single product feature. What training approach is this?

1. Job rotation
   Job rotation moves employees across jobs to build skills, not through short lessons.
2. Vestibule training
   Vestibule training uses a simulated workplace, not short videos.
3. Microlearning
   Microlearning delivers short, focused lessons on one topic that learners can complete quickly.
4. Blended learning
   Blended learning mixes online and in-person instruction; these videos are online only.

Hollis Health publishes a chart showing how a patient services representative can move to senior representative, then team lead, then office manager, with the skills needed at each step. What is this chart?

1. Staffing table
   A staffing table lists planned positions and headcount.
2. Career path
   A career path shows the sequence of jobs an employee can progress through and what each step requires.
3. Succession plan
   A succession plan names specific successors for key roles; it is not an open map for all employees.
4. Organization chart
   An organization chart shows reporting relationships, not progression steps.

Crestwood Software collapses its 18 narrow pay grades into 5 wide bands, so employees can grow in pay without needing a promotion to a new grade. What is this approach called?

1. Pay compression
   Pay compression is a shrinking pay gap between employees, not a grade structure.
2. Broadbanding
   Broadbanding replaces many narrow grades with a few wide bands, allowing more pay movement within a band.
3. Market pricing
   Market pricing sets pay from salary survey data; it does not restructure grades.
4. Red-circling
   Red-circling describes one employee's pay above a range maximum.

Workers at Lakeside Orchards are paid $0.60 for each bin of apples they pick. What kind of pay plan is this?

1. Gainsharing
   Gainsharing shares a group's productivity savings; it is not paid per unit.
2. Commission
   A commission is a percentage of sales revenue, not a rate per unit produced.
3. Profit sharing
   Profit sharing pays out part of company profits.
4. Piece-rate pay
   Piece-rate pay ties earnings directly to the number of units an individual produces.

An HR analyst at Bayview Credit Union sets pay ranges by comparing its jobs with salary survey data on what other local employers pay for similar jobs. What is this approach called?

1. Merit budgeting
   Merit budgeting sets the pool for performance-based raises; it does not set ranges from surveys.
2. Point-factor method
   The point-factor method values jobs internally by scoring factors, not from survey data.
3. Market pricing
   Market pricing sets pay from external data on what other employers pay for comparable jobs.
4. Ranking method
   The ranking method orders jobs internally by their overall worth, without market data.

Every employee at Granger County receives a 3% increase tied to the rise in the Consumer Price Index, whatever their performance. What type of increase is this?

1. Cost-of-living adjustment
   A COLA is a general increase tied to price changes, such as the CPI, and goes to everyone.
2. Step increase
   A step increase moves an employee up a set pay schedule, usually by length of service.
3. Merit increase
   A merit increase depends on individual performance, which plays no part here.
4. Lump-sum bonus
   A lump-sum bonus is a one-time payment that does not raise base pay.

Which feature belongs to a health flexible spending account (FSA) rather than a health savings account (HSA)?

1. The balance belongs to the employee if they leave
   An HSA belongs to the employee and goes with them; health FSA funds stay with the employer's plan.
2. Unused funds can be forfeited at plan year end
   Health FSAs are generally use-it-or-lose-it, softened only by an optional grace period or limited carryover.
3. The balance can be invested like a retirement account
   HSA balances can be invested; health FSA balances cannot.
4. Eligibility requires a high-deductible health plan
   HDHP coverage is required for an HSA, not for a health FSA.

Ana marries in June, outside her employer's open enrollment period. Under HIPAA special enrollment rules, how long must the group health plan give her, at minimum, to request coverage for her new spouse?

1. 14 days
   14 days is the COBRA deadline for the plan administrator to send an election notice.
2. 90 days
   90 days is the maximum ACA waiting period for new eligibility, not the special enrollment window.
3. 30 days
   HIPAA special enrollment rules require at least 30 days after a marriage, birth, or adoption to request enrollment.
4. 60 days
   60 days applies to special enrollment after losing or gaining Medicaid or CHIP eligibility, not to marriage.

Which of these is a voluntary fringe benefit rather than one employers are legally required to provide or fund?

1. Gym membership reimbursement
   Gym reimbursement is offered at the employer's discretion, so it is a voluntary fringe benefit.
2. State unemployment insurance
   Employers are legally required to fund unemployment insurance.
3. Employer Social Security tax
   Employers must pay their share of Social Security tax under federal law.
4. Workers' compensation coverage
   Workers' compensation coverage is required by state law in nearly every state (Texas is the main exception).

Marcus leaves his job after one year. His 401(k) plan uses three-year cliff vesting for the employer match. What does he keep?

1. Half of the employer match
   Cliff vesting gives 0% until the cliff date, then 100%; there is no partial vesting at one year.
2. All money, including the match
   The match is not vested until three years of service under this schedule.
3. Nothing from his account
   His own deferrals are always fully vested, whatever the vesting schedule.
4. His own contributions and their earnings
   Employee deferrals are always 100% vested; under three-year cliff vesting, the match is forfeited before three years.

Which payroll tax is paid only by the employer and is never withheld from employees' wages?

1. Social Security tax
   Social Security tax is split: the employee pays 6.2% and the employer matches it.
2. Federal income tax
   Federal income tax is withheld from the employee's wages; the employer only remits it.
3. Medicare hospital insurance tax
   Medicare (hospital insurance) tax is paid by both employee and employer at 1.45% each.
4. Federal unemployment tax
   Federal unemployment tax (FUTA) is imposed on employers; nothing is withheld from employee pay for it.

Tomas earns an annual salary of $52,000 and is paid biweekly. What is his gross pay each pay period?

1. $2,166.67
   $2,166.67 divides by 24, the number of semimonthly pay periods, not biweekly.
2. $2,000.00
   Biweekly payroll has 26 pay periods: $52,000 ÷ 26 = $2,000.00.
3. $4,333.33
   $4,333.33 divides by 12, which is a monthly payroll.
4. $1,000.00
   $1,000.00 divides by 52, which is a weekly payroll.

A company's careers page lists 'Integrity, Teamwork, Customer First, and Respect' as the principles that guide how employees act. What are these?

1. Strategic goals
   Strategic goals are measurable targets, not principles of conduct.
2. Mission statement
   A mission statement describes the organization's purpose, not a list of guiding principles.
3. Core values
   Core values are the guiding principles that shape behavior and culture.
4. Vision statement
   A vision statement describes the future the organization wants to reach.

In a SWOT analysis, high turnover among a company's own field technicians would be classified as what?

1. Weakness
   Weaknesses are internal shortcomings, and the company's own high turnover is internal.
2. Opportunity
   Opportunities are favorable external conditions.
3. Threat
   Threats are external factors, such as new regulations or competitors.
4. Strength
   Strengths are internal advantages, not internal problems.

What does the term 'span of control' refer to?

1. The number of direct reports a manager supervises
   Span of control is how many employees report directly to one manager.
2. The authority a manager hands to employees
   Handing authority to employees is delegation.
3. The rule that each employee has one boss
   One boss per employee is the principle of unity of command.
4. The number of layers in the chain of command
   The number of layers describes how tall the structure is, not one manager's span.

Which HRIS feature lets supervisors approve their team's time-off requests and view their direct reports' job and pay history without contacting HR?

1. Applicant tracking
   Applicant tracking manages job candidates.
2. Employee self-service
   Employee self-service lets employees manage their own records, not approve their team's requests.
3. Manager self-service
   Manager self-service lets supervisors handle approvals and view team data directly.
4. Learning management
   A learning management module assigns and tracks training.

On her last day, a departing analyst meets with HR to discuss why she is leaving and what the company could improve. What is this meeting?

1. Exit interview
   An exit interview collects feedback from departing employees about their reasons for leaving.
2. Stay interview
   A stay interview is held with current employees to learn why they stay.
3. Termination meeting
   A termination meeting tells an employee that the employer is ending employment; she is resigning.
4. Skip-level meeting
   A skip-level meeting is between an employee and their manager's manager.

Maintenance staff at Glenview Schools work four 10-hour days each week and have Fridays off. What is this arrangement called?

1. Job sharing
   Job sharing splits one position between two people.
2. Part-time schedule
   A part-time schedule has fewer total hours; these staff still work 40 hours.
3. Flextime
   Flextime lets employees vary start and end times; it does not reduce the number of workdays.
4. Compressed workweek
   A compressed workweek fits full-time hours into fewer, longer days.

HR at Kestrel Hotels compares its turnover rate and time-to-fill with industry data from similar hotel chains to spot gaps. What is this practice called?

1. Benchmarking
   Benchmarking compares an organization's metrics or practices with those of other organizations.
2. Job evaluation
   Job evaluation sets the relative worth of jobs for pay purposes.
3. SWOT analysis
   A SWOT analysis sorts internal strengths and weaknesses and external opportunities and threats; it is not a metric comparison.
4. Trend analysis
   Trend analysis looks at the company's own data over time, not comparisons with other companies.

Managers at Strand Consulting must rate 20% of their team as top performers, 70% as solid, and 10% as low performers. Which appraisal method is this?

1. Behaviorally anchored rating scale
   BARS rates each person against behavioral examples, with no required percentages.
2. Management by objectives
   MBO measures each employee against jointly set goals, not against a quota.
3. Critical incident method
   The critical incident method relies on a log of notable behaviors, with no percentage quotas.
4. Forced distribution
   Forced distribution requires a set percentage of employees in each rating category.

An appraisal form at Strand Consulting has no rating scales. Instead, the supervisor writes several paragraphs describing the employee's strengths, weaknesses, and progress. Which appraisal method is this?

1. Forced distribution
   Forced distribution places employees into set percentage categories.
2. Paired comparison
   Paired comparison ranks employees against each other in pairs.
3. Essay method
   The essay (narrative) method has the rater describe performance in writing rather than on a scale.
4. Graphic rating scale
   A graphic rating scale uses numeric ratings on listed factors.

A new manager at Benton Supply believes no one deserves top marks and rates every employee 'below expectations,' including those who met all their goals. Which rating error is this?

1. Central tendency
   Central tendency rates everyone in the middle of the scale, not uniformly low.
2. Strictness error
   Strictness error rates employees more harshly than their performance warrants.
3. Recency error
   Recency error overweights recent events; it does not explain uniformly low ratings.
4. Leniency error
   Leniency error rates everyone too generously, the opposite problem.

What is the primary purpose of a progressive discipline process?

1. To build a case for firing the employee quickly
   The process is corrective; using it only to build a case defeats its purpose.
2. To give the employee a fair chance to correct the problem
   Progressive discipline uses escalating steps so the employee knows the problem and has a chance to fix it.
3. To guarantee the employee a job for a set period
   Discipline policies do not guarantee employment; most preserve at-will status.
4. To replace the need for written documentation
   Progressive discipline relies on documentation at each step.

Which task belongs in an employee offboarding checklist?

1. Setting the employee's first-year performance goals
   Setting first-year goals is part of onboarding.
2. Enrolling the employee in the benefits plan
   Benefits enrollment happens at hire or open enrollment, not at separation.
3. Collecting company equipment and ending system access
   Offboarding includes recovering property and removing access to systems and buildings.
4. Completing a new Form I-9 for the employee
   Form I-9 is completed at hire, not when an employee leaves.

Hillcrest Labs had 200 employees on January 1. By December 31, 30 of those 200 had left (new hires during the year are not counted). What was the retention rate?

1. 70.0%
   70.0% subtracts 30 from 100 instead of computing 170 ÷ 200.
2. 15.0%
   15.0% is the share who left (30 ÷ 200), a turnover figure.
3. 17.6%
   17.6% divides 30 leavers by the 170 who stayed, which measures neither retention nor turnover.
4. 85.0%
   Retention rate = employees from the starting group still employed ÷ starting headcount = 170 ÷ 200 = 85.0%.

In a typical workplace complaint investigation, who is usually interviewed first?

1. The employee who made the complaint
   The complainant is usually interviewed first to get the full allegations before the accused and witnesses are interviewed.
2. The witnesses named in the complaint
   Witnesses are usually interviewed after the complainant has described what happened.
3. The complainant's coworkers at random
   Interviewing random coworkers is not standard practice and would spread the matter needlessly.
4. The employee accused of misconduct
   The accused is normally interviewed after the complainant, so the allegations can be put to them fully.

A hiring manager assumes a 58-year-old applicant will struggle to learn new software, without any evidence about this applicant. This assumption is an example of what?

1. The contrast effect
   The contrast effect compares a candidate with another candidate.
2. The halo effect
   The halo effect is one positive trait inflating all ratings; this is a belief about a group.
3. A stereotype
   A stereotype applies a generalized belief about a group to an individual, regardless of the facts about that person.
4. The recency effect
   The recency effect overweights the latest information; this is a group-based assumption.

Brightline Logistics brings on four workers this week. Which of them falls outside the company's Form I-9 requirement?

1. A seasonal worker hired for two weeks
   Short-term and seasonal employees still need Form I-9, completed within the usual deadlines.
2. An independent contractor paid by invoice
   Form I-9 is completed for employees; a genuine independent contractor is not the client's employee, so the client does not complete one.
3. A U.S.-citizen part-time cashier
   Citizens and part-time employees both need Form I-9; neither status removes the requirement.
4. A permanent resident hired full-time
   A lawful permanent resident completes Form I-9 like any other new employee.

Which 1986 federal law first required employers to verify the identity and work authorization of every new hire?

1. Immigration Reform and Control Act
   IRCA made it unlawful to knowingly hire unauthorized workers and created the employment verification (Form I-9) requirement.
2. Americans with Disabilities Act
   The ADA prohibits disability discrimination; it does not require work authorization checks.
3. Civil Rights Act of 1964
   The Civil Rights Act's Title VII prohibits discrimination; it does not require work authorization checks.
4. Fair Labor Standards Act
   The FLSA sets minimum wage, overtime, and child labor rules, not immigration verification.

Under employment at will, which statement is accurate?

1. The employer may fire for any reason, even illegal ones
   At-will status does not allow terminations that violate law, such as discrimination or retaliation.
2. The employer must show just cause for any firing
   Just cause is a union-contract or individual-contract standard, not the at-will rule.
3. Only the employee may end the job without notice
   At-will status works both ways; the employer may also end employment without notice.
4. Either side may end the job at any time for any lawful reason
   At-will employment can be ended by employer or employee at any time, with or without notice or cause, as long as the reason is not unlawful.

Which state's law generally requires good cause to discharge an employee who has completed the employer's probationary period, departing from at-will employment?

1. New York
   New York follows the at-will rule, with statutory exceptions, not a general good-cause requirement.
2. Montana
   Montana's Wrongful Discharge from Employment Act makes a discharge wrongful if it lacks good cause after the probationary period.
3. California
   California has many employee protections but presumes at-will employment under its Labor Code.
4. Texas
   Texas follows employment at will without a general good-cause statute.

Which federal agency enforces Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

1. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
   The EEOC enforces Title VII and other federal anti-discrimination laws.
2. National Labor Relations Board
   The NLRB enforces the National Labor Relations Act.
3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
   OSHA enforces workplace safety and health standards.
4. Department of Labor, Wage and Hour Division
   The Wage and Hour Division enforces wage laws such as the FLSA.

Which federal agency conducts secret-ballot elections to decide whether employees will be represented by a union?

1. Department of Labor, Wage and Hour Division
   The Wage and Hour Division enforces wage laws such as the FLSA.
2. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
   The EEOC enforces anti-discrimination laws.
3. Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service
   The FMCS helps mediate contract disputes; it does not run representation elections.
4. National Labor Relations Board
   The NLRB processes representation petitions and conducts secret-ballot union elections.

What does a state 'right-to-work' law do?

1. Requires just cause before any employee is fired
   Right-to-work laws deal with union membership, not discharge standards.
2. Guarantees every resident a job if they want one
   Right-to-work laws do not guarantee employment.
3. Bars requiring union membership as a condition of employment
   Right-to-work laws, permitted by NLRA Section 14(b), stop agreements that require union membership or dues to keep a job.
4. Bans unions from organizing workers in the state
   Unions may still organize and bargain in right-to-work states.

A union grievance over a disputed suspension goes to a neutral third party who holds a hearing and issues a decision both sides must accept. What is this process?

1. Conciliation
   Conciliation is an informal process that helps parties communicate; it does not end in an imposed decision.
2. Mediation
   A mediator helps the parties reach their own agreement and cannot impose a decision.
3. Open-door review
   An open-door review is an internal management practice, not a hearing before a neutral.
4. Arbitration
   In binding arbitration a neutral hears the case and issues a decision the parties must follow.

Norvale Health terminates an employee who was enrolled in its group health plan, which is run by an outside plan administrator. Within how many days must Norvale notify the plan administrator of this qualifying event?

1. 60 days
   60 days is the minimum election period for the qualified beneficiary, and also the deadline for an employee to report a divorce.
2. 90 days
   90 days is not a COBRA employer notice deadline.
3. 14 days
   14 days is the administrator's deadline to send the election notice after hearing from the employer.
4. 30 days
   The employer must notify the plan administrator within 30 days of a qualifying event such as termination or reduced hours.

Under USERRA, a returning service member keeps reemployment rights with an employer as long as the cumulative length of military service with that employer generally does not exceed how long?

1. Ten years
   Ten years exceeds the USERRA limit.
2. Five years
   USERRA's reemployment rights apply when cumulative service with that employer does not exceed five years, with listed exceptions.
3. Three years
   Three years is shorter than the five-year cumulative limit.
4. Two years
   Two years is shorter than the USERRA cumulative limit.

A landscaping company had no more than 8 employees at any time last year. What does the OSHA recordkeeping rule generally require of it regarding the OSHA 300 Log?

1. It is partially exempt from the log
   Employers with 10 or fewer employees at all times in the prior year are partially exempt from keeping OSHA injury and illness records.
2. It must keep the log only for office staff
   The rule does not split employees this way.
3. It must keep and post the log every year
   Employers with 10 or fewer employees all year are generally exempt from the log.
4. It must file the log with OSHA each month
   No monthly filing applies; small employers are generally exempt.

A doctor's note an employee gave her supervisor to excuse a sick day is kept in her personnel file. Is that note protected health information under the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

1. No; HIPAA only applies to federal agencies
   HIPAA applies to covered entities, including private health plans and providers, not only federal agencies.
2. Yes; any medical note anywhere is covered
   HIPAA covers health plans, providers, and clearinghouses, and it excludes employment records.
3. No; employment records are excluded
   The HIPAA definition of PHI excludes employment records held by a covered entity in its role as employer.
4. Yes; but only if the employer has 50+ workers
   Employer size does not matter here; employment records are excluded from PHI at any size.

Over several months, coworkers repeatedly post sexual jokes and images in a shared workspace, and an employee finds it hard to do her job. No job benefit was ever tied to her response. What type of harassment does this describe?

1. Constructive discharge
   Constructive discharge is resigning because conditions became intolerable; she has not resigned.
2. Hostile work environment
   A hostile work environment arises from unwelcome conduct that is severe or pervasive enough to change working conditions.
3. Disparate impact discrimination
   Disparate impact discrimination comes from a neutral policy that disproportionately affects a protected group.
4. Quid pro quo harassment
   Quid pro quo ties a job benefit or decision to sexual conduct, which did not happen here.

To reduce the risk of theft, Bellmont Clinic makes sure that the employee who approves vendor invoices is not the same person who issues payments. What control is this?

1. Least-privilege access
   Least privilege limits system access to what a job needs; it does not split transaction steps between people.
2. Mandatory vacation
   Mandatory vacation forces time away so irregularities can surface; it does not split duties.
3. Job rotation
   Job rotation moves employees between roles over time, not by splitting approval and payment.
4. Separation of duties
   Separation of duties splits key steps of a transaction among different people so no one person can commit and hide fraud.

After a round of layoffs, the remaining employees at Quarry Software report anxiety, distrust of leadership, and lower productivity. What is this effect commonly called?

1. Survivor syndrome
   Survivor syndrome describes the guilt, anxiety, and lower engagement of employees who keep their jobs after layoffs.
2. Halo effect
   The halo effect is a rating bias in which one positive trait inflates other ratings.
3. Burnout syndrome
   Burnout comes from long-term work stress in general; the term for post-layoff reactions is survivor syndrome.
4. Groupthink
   Groupthink is pressure for agreement in a group, not a reaction to layoffs.